There has been much fevered debate about why Apple charged us for these Apples that we feel are a "right" when, in fact, are a privilege. If you investigate the Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002, you will see that this is indeed the reason why Apple had to charge us. (c.f. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sarbanes-Oxley_Act) In short, a company cannot freely provide a feature that was unpublicized upon the initial release of a product, i.e., Apple cannot release (without charge) the "5-app-pack" because it was not initially a feature of the iPod Touch. One could argue what does feature mean, but it is fruitless. The real question here is why did Apple charge $20? It is my understanding of the Act, that mere cost displaces wrongdoing and so Apple could very well have charged $1 and circumvented this madness. Any input?